I do not think I did, and I do not think that helps with the question.Show me please where I said it can?
To me it is simple domain logic.
1) The USPS operates within the USA.
2) USPS interacted with the parcel to op’s detriment.
3) Since the point of receipt was not in USPS territory, point 2 drives the conclusion that it was sent from within USA territory, within all of which it is by definition unlawful.
If that is silly, I’ll ask for you to lay it out a bit better.