I thought Zimmer's defense fund was under control of his lawyers and was to be used for his legal bills. How can that be considered a personal asset? I don't see how he could tap into it to flee the country, or something, without his lawyers permission?
Did a google search for the "Zimmerman Defense Fund". Doesn't look to me like Zimmer has personal access to the money.
" This is the only official website for the George Zimmerman Legal Defense Fund. The money donated here will be used for George Zimmerman's ongoing living expenses, legal costs, and fees for this matter. The funds are being administered by a third-party administrator, who has a background as a former IRS agent, a Certified Public Accountant, and great experience in dealing with Chapter 7 bankruptcy trustee matters.
We have chosen to use PayPal to collect donations because they offer secure transactions, they have a strong reputation for online monetary transactions, and they are a trusted third-party.
The personal information that is collected as part of your donation process will be kept strictly confidential."
http://www.gzdefensefund.com/
I think I understand why it's 2nd degree and not manslaughter in this particular case. If it were just manslaughter, there really was no crime. Manslaughter implies no ill will doesn't it? Here we had an altercation, one had a gun one did not. If...if there was a crime, it's more serious than manslaughter. I think that's why.
I am not adressing his guilt one way or the other here, only the reasons why it might be 2nd degree and not manslaughter. Then again, you never know, the judge may give the jury that option when he charges them.
He did plenty wrong in the "gosh, what an idiot" kind of way, but from the evidence I have seen he hasn't committed a crime. Maybe the prosecutor has some convincing evidence that they have not released but that looks more and more unlikely. The affidavit of probable cause presented by the prosecutor was universally scorned, even by lefties like you, Uterus.
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